News article today in our local paper quoted a marriage license clerk as not wanting to provide licenses to same sex couples because the purpose of marriage was for a man and woman to beget children in a stable social setting, as this was advantageous to society. (Note: no political or religious content here, just sociological!) I keep hearing this argument, so I assume there are some here who subscribe to it.
My question for them: should marriage therefore be off-limits to couples for whom both parties cannot prove fertility or couples who won't commit to at least attempting to have children? E.g., should my mother-in-law have been forbidden from remarrying at age 75 to have the loving and committed companionship she desired?
Or is this particular "marriage should be restricted to breeders but with heterosexual-only exceptions" argument simply a rationalization for a prejudice commonly labeled homophobia?
My question for them: should marriage therefore be off-limits to couples for whom both parties cannot prove fertility or couples who won't commit to at least attempting to have children? E.g., should my mother-in-law have been forbidden from remarrying at age 75 to have the loving and committed companionship she desired?
Or is this particular "marriage should be restricted to breeders but with heterosexual-only exceptions" argument simply a rationalization for a prejudice commonly labeled homophobia?
Comment